Arhat Virdi
Description of the Graph:
This is a scatter plot titled "Excess return of size portfolios, 1926 - 2005". The x-axis represents Beta, ranging from 0.0 to 1.6. The y-axis represents Average Monthly Excess Return (%), ranging from 0.0 to 1.8.
A straight diagonal line, labeled "Security Market Line," extends from the origin (0,0) upwards to the right. A black dot on this line is labeled "Market Portfolio" at a Beta of approximately 1.0 and an average monthly excess return of about 0.65%.
The plot displays several data points, representing portfolios sorted by size. A color key indicates that portfolios are divided into 10 groups (deciles), with 1 (colored red) being the smallest firms and 10 (colored dark blue) being the largest. The data points for smaller firms (reddish colors) tend to be located in the upper right part of the graph, indicating both higher Betas and higher average monthly excess returns. Specifically, these points lie consistently above the Security Market Line, suggesting they generated returns greater than predicted by the CAPM for their level of risk. The points for larger firms (bluish colors) are clustered closer to the Security Market Line. Each point has vertical light green error bars, indicating the range of returns.
Description of the Graph:
This is a time-series line graph titled "Excess January Return and Non-January Return: Small-Mid-cap, 5-year Moving Average". The x-axis represents Time, spanning from before 1940 to 2010. The y-axis represents Excess Return (%), ranging from -5% to 15%.
There are two lines on the graph. A thick black line represents the excess return in January, and a thinner gray line represents the average excess return for all other months (Non-January). The black line (January) is consistently above the gray line (Non-January) for most of the period from the 1930s until the mid-1980s, often showing positive excess returns between 0% and 5%. The gray line hovers close to 0% for the entire period. This shows that the "size effect" was historically concentrated in January. A vertical dashed line is drawn around 1985, after which the gap between the two lines narrows significantly, and the January effect appears to weaken or disappear.
Description of the Graph:
This is a scatter plot titled "Excess return of book-market portfolios, 1926-2005". The axes and the Security Market Line are identical to the graph on slide 5. The x-axis is Beta (0.0 to 1.6) and the y-axis is Average Monthly Excess Return (%) (0.0 to 1.6).
The data points represent portfolios sorted by their book-to-market ratio. A color key shows 10 deciles, where 1 (colored red) represents low book-to-market ("growth stocks") and 10 (colored dark blue) represents high book-to-market ("value stocks").
The points for high book-to-market portfolios (bluish colors) are generally located above the Security Market Line, indicating higher returns than predicted by their Beta. These value stocks are concentrated in the upper right, with higher Betas and higher returns. Conversely, low book-to-market portfolios (reddish colors) are clustered closer to, or slightly below, the Security Market Line.
Description of the Graph:
This scatter plot is titled "Average Annualized Monthly Return versus Beta for Value Weight Portfolios Formed on B/M 1963-2003". The x-axis represents Beta, from approximately 0.7 to 1.2. The y-axis represents Average annualized monthly return (%), from 9% to 17%.
A straight line labeled "Average returns predicted by the CAPM" slopes gently upwards from left to right. Ten data points, labeled 1 through 10, are plotted. Point 1 corresponds to the lowest Book-to-Market (B/M) portfolio, and point 10 corresponds to the highest B/M portfolio.
The key observation is that all portfolios from 2 to 10 lie significantly above the CAPM prediction line. Portfolio 1 (lowest B/M, "growth") is below the line. Portfolios with higher B/M ratios (e.g., 7, 8, 9, 10) not only have high returns (14-17%) but also have Betas less than 1. This contradicts the CAPM, which predicts that higher returns should be associated with higher Betas.
Description of the Graph:
This is a combination bar and line chart comparing the performance of Value and "Glamour" (Growth) stocks from 1927 to 2011. The x-axis shows the years.
There are two y-axes. The left-hand y-axis, for the bars, shows Annual Return from -100% to 200%. Green bars represent "Value Annual Return" and pink bars represent "Glamour Annual Return". The right-hand y-axis, for the lines, is logarithmic and shows Compound Return from $10 to $10,000,000.
The green line ("Value Compound Return") shows significantly higher growth over the long term than the red line ("Glamour Compound Return"). The chart indicates a Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of 12.6% for Value stocks versus 8.6% for Glamour stocks. The bars show that in any given year, performance varies, but over the entire period, the cumulative effect of Value outperformance is substantial.
Description of the Graph:
This bar chart displays the "Gross Sharpe Ratio" of a 12-month trend-following strategy across four asset classes: Commodities, Currencies, Equities, and Fixed Income. The y-axis shows the Gross Sharpe Ratio, ranging from 0.0 to 1.2.
The x-axis lists dozens of individual assets within these classes. For example, Commodities include Aluminum and Brent Oil; Currencies include AUD-JPY and EUR-USD; Equities include S&P 500 and FTSE 100; and Fixed Income includes various government bonds.
The chart shows that this momentum strategy generates positive Sharpe Ratios for the vast majority of assets across all classes, indicating that the risk-adjusted returns are positive. This suggests that the momentum effect is pervasive and not confined to a single market or asset type.
| Explanation | Details | Checks |
|---|---|---|
| It's all data-snooping | Try many factors on a finite sample, you may find spurious predictability (does not hold out of sample) | Predict out-of-sample, using mechanism of first principles. MacLean et al (2015): out of 200+ factors, 26% drop post sample, 32% post public |
| It will be arbitraged away | Reduction in average anomaly return after sample period or publication of source | |
| It's all omitted risk factors | Factors to be captured in a multifactor return model (How do we know we capture risk?) | Measure risk, risk aversion |
| It's mispricing | Anomalies reflect market mispricing (market inefficiency) driven by investor psychology | Psych. Mechanisms; Why don't rational arbitrageurs eliminate this effect? |
If the CAPM correctly computes risk premiums, but investors are ignoring opportunities to earn extra returns without bearing any extra risk, it is because they are unaware of them or the costs to implement the strategies are larger than the value generated by undertaking them
Key assumption:
Errors are mean zero, uncorrelated across stocks and with factors
$E(\epsilon_{it})=0$
$Cov(\epsilon_{it},\epsilon_{jt})=0,$
$Cov(\epsilon_{it},r_{mt})=0$
APT predicts a SML linking expected returns to risk, but the path it takes to the SML is quite different to CAPM
Consider portfolio of N assets indexed by i
$$ r_{pt}-r_{f}=\alpha_{p}+\beta_{pm}(r_{mt}-r_{f})+\epsilon_{pt} $$where $w_i$ are weights of individual assets in portfolio, and
$$ \alpha_{p}=\sum_{i=1}^{N}w_{i}\alpha_{i} $$ $$ \beta_{pm}=\sum_{i=1}^{N}w_{i}\beta_{im} $$ $$ \epsilon_{pt}=\sum_{i=1}^{N}w_{i}\epsilon_{it} $$Variance of residual $\epsilon_{pt}$
$$ Var(\epsilon_{pt})=\sum_{i=1}^{N}w_{i}^{2}Var(\epsilon_{it}) $$Portfolio returns are thus
$$ r_{pt}-r_{f}=\alpha_{p}+\beta_{pm}(r_{mt}-r_{f}) $$| APT | CAPM | |
|---|---|---|
| Result | $r_{pt}-r_{f}=\beta_{pm}(r_{mt}-r_{f})$ | $E(r_{i})=r_{f}+\beta_{i}(E(r_{m})-r_{f})$ |
| Key Assumptions | Systematic risk captured by factors, with residual risks uncorrelated across stocks. Absence of arbitrage. | Equilibrium of demand and supply of assets, given mean-variance prefs and rational expectations. |
| Pros | Generalises to multiple factors, matches data better. Robust to CAPM assumptions: non-financial assets, homogeneity of expectations, zero mispricing, etc. | Equilibrium of demand and supply of assets, clarifies the risk-return trade off with diversification, explains why only systematic risk matters. |
| Cons | It is not an equilibrium model, rather a description of data. Why is systematic risk captured by factors? What are those factors? | Does not match the evidence well, implementation issues. |
Key assumption:
In practice, no single factor accounts for all the correlations among individual stocks:
What might be some factors that drive correlations among stocks?
How do we pick the factors for a multifactor model?
Gap in our analysis: need theory to explain which factors should arise
| Factors we ought to care about | Factors investors seem to care about |
|---|---|
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Description of the Graph (1926-2013):
This is a line graph showing the "Log Cumulative Normalized Return" for four factors from July 1926 to April 2013. The x-axis is time, and the y-axis is the log cumulative return.
There are four lines: MKT (market), HML (high minus low, value), SMB (small minus big, size), and MOM (momentum). Over this long period, the MOM factor (solid black line) shows the highest cumulative return, ending at the top. The MKT factor (dotted line) is next. The HML factor (dark gray line) also shows significant growth, while the SMB factor (light gray line) has the lowest cumulative return, appearing much flatter than the others over the long run.
Description of the Graph (1990-2013):
This graph shows the same four factors over a more recent period, January 1990 to April 2013. The MKT factor and the MOM factor are again the strongest performers. The MOM factor shows extreme volatility, with a dramatic peak around the year 2000 (the dot-com bubble) followed by a sharp crash, and then a recovery. The HML and SMB factors are much less volatile and show significantly lower cumulative returns during this period, with the HML factor even experiencing a prolonged period of negative cumulative returns in the late 1990s.
Currently the most popular choice for the multifactor models use the excess return of the market, SMB, HML, and PR1YR portfolios
Fama-French-Carhart (FFC) Factor Specification
$$ E[R_{s}]=r_{f}+\beta_{s}^{MKT}(E[R_{MKT}]-r_{f})+\beta_{s}^{SMB}E[R_{SMB}] + \beta_{s}^{HML}E[R_{HML}]+\beta_{s}^{PR1YR}E[R_{PR1YR}] $$Fama-French (FF) Factor Specification
$$ E[R_{s}]=r_{f}+\beta_{s}^{MKT}(E[R_{MKT}]-r_{f})+\beta_{s}^{SMB}E[R_{SMB}] + \beta_{s}^{HML}E[R_{HML}] $$Recall the dividend discount factor:
$$ P_{i}=\frac{E[X_{i}]}{1+r} $$where $X_i$ is the stochastic payoff tomorrow
In general, different payoffs $X_i$ are discounted at different rates
$$ P_{i}=E[MX_{i}] $$where M is the stochastic discount factor
Divide by the price of the asset
$$ 1=E\left[\frac{MX_{i}}{P_{i}}\right]=E[M(1+r_{i})] $$Result: if SDF is $M=a-br_{m}$ then CAPM beta equation holds
$$ E[r_{i}-r_{f}]=\beta_{i}E[r_{m}-r_{f}] $$This implies:
$$ E[r_{i}-r_{f}]=\frac{-Cov(M,r_{i})}{E[M]} $$The return of an asset depends negatively on its covariance with SDF
Rewrite: reward-risk ratio is the same for all assets
$$ \frac{E[r_{i}-r_{f}]}{Cov(r_{m},r_{i})}=\frac{b}{E[M]} $$Equate reward-risk ratio for asset i and the market portfolio m:
$$ \frac{E[r_{i}-r_{f}]}{Cov(r_{m},r_{i})}=\frac{E[r_{m}-r_{f}]}{Var(r_{m})} $$Rewriting this gives the CAPM pricing relation:
$$ E[r_{i}-r_{f}]=\beta_{i}E[r_{m}-r_{f}] $$Key assumption:
Third way to derive the CAPM beta pricing equation
Key assumption for multifactor model:
{Next lecture: behavioural drivers of multifactor models}
Description of the Graph:
This slide contains two time-series line graphs from 1889 to 2000.
Graph A (top) is titled "S&P 500" and shows its annual return. The y-axis ranges from -40% to 60%. The line is highly volatile, showing large swings with many years of returns above 20% and several years with losses greater than 20%, most notably during the Great Depression around 1929.
Graph B (bottom) is titled "Relatively Riskless Asset" (like T-bills). Its y-axis ranges from -20% to 20%. In stark contrast to the S&P 500, this line is much smoother and stays very close to 0% for the entire period. This visualizes the much lower risk of bonds compared to equities.
A is Arrow-Pratt coefficient of ARA
where M is SDF (marginal utility of consumption)
$$ E[r_{stocks}] - r_{bonds} = -Cov(r_{stocks}, M) $$US equities
| Data Set | % real return market index (mean) | % real return on a riskless security (mean) | % equity premium (mean) |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1802-1998 (Siegel) | 7.0 | 2.9 | 4.1 |
| 1871-1999 (Shiller) | 6.99 | 1.74 | 5.75 |
| 1889-2000 (M-P) | 8.06 | 1.14 | 6.92 |
| 1926-2000 | 8.8 | 0.4 | 8.4 |
In terms of terminal value, if you invested $1 in stocks and bonds
Description of the Graph:
This is a scatter plot showing the historical performance of stock markets from various countries. The x-axis represents the "Years of Existence since Inception" of the stock market, from 0 to 100. The y-axis represents the "Real Return (%/year)", from -6% to +6%.
Each red square is a country. The key insight is a potential survivorship bias. Countries with long-running, uninterrupted stock markets (e.g., U.S., Sweden, Switzerland, Canada, U.K.), located on the right side of the graph, all show positive real returns. Countries with shorter histories, often interrupted by wars, revolutions, or hyperinflation (e.g., Poland, Greece, Argentina), are scattered across the graph and many show negative real returns. The graph suggests that focusing only on successful markets like the U.S. may overstate the expected equity premium.
| Country | Period | Market index | Riskless | Equity premium |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| United States | 1802-2004 | 8.38% | 3.02% | 5.36% |
| UK | 1900-2005 | 7.4% | 1.3% | 6.1% |
| Japan | 1900-2005 | 9.3% | -0.5% | 9.8% |
| Germany | 1900-2005 | 8.2% | -0.9% | 9.1% |
| France | 1900-2005 | 6.1% | -3.2% | 9.3% |
| Sweden | 1900-2005 | 10.1% | 2.1% | 8.0% |
| Australia | 1900-2005 | 9.2% | 0.7% | 8.5% |
| India | 1991-2004 | 12.6% | 1.3% | 11.3% |
| Candidate explanation | Findings |
|---|---|
| Stock risk is actually higher | Rare disaster risk (Barro 2006): with 1.7% chance of 40% default we generate a premium of 5.4% |
| Risk aversion is actually higher | High risk aversion can produce high risk premium for equity BUT cannot simultaneously explain low returns on bonds |
| Loss aversion | If stocks evaluated separately from bonds (narrow framing) then higher volatility entails severe loss aversion for stocks |
Other considerations:
If we buy and hold a stock forever, price should be
$$ P_{t}=\frac{D_{t+1}}{r-g} $$How to test this?
S&P500 (left) and Dow Jones Industrial Average (right)
Description of the Graphs:
These two line graphs from Shiller (1981) compare the actual stock market index with its "ex post rational price".
Left Graph (S&P 500, 1870-1970): The solid line, labeled 'p', represents the real S&P 500 index. It is highly volatile, with major peaks and troughs. The dashed line, labeled 'p*', represents the present value of actual subsequent dividends. This 'p*' line is remarkably smooth and stable by comparison. The actual price 'p' fluctuates dramatically around the fundamental value 'p*'.
Right Graph (Dow Jones, 1928-1978): This graph shows the same phenomenon for the Dow Jones Industrial Average. The solid line 'p' (the index) shows massive volatility, including the 1929 crash, while the dashed 'p*' line (fundamental value) is much smoother. The finding in both cases is that stock prices are far more volatile than the underlying dividend streams can seemingly justify.
Excess volatility still observed in recent times
Description of the Graph:
This is a line graph of the "Shiller P/E Ratio" from before 1880 to recent years. The y-axis is the Price-Earnings Ratio, ranging from 0 to 50. The graph shows the cyclically adjusted price-to-earnings ratio for the U.S. stock market. The line is extremely volatile over the long term, showing several major peaks. Key peaks are labeled: 1901, 1929 (before the Great Depression), 1966, and the highest peak by far in 2000 (the dot-com bubble), when the ratio exceeded 40. The graph illustrates that market valuation, as measured by the P/E ratio, fluctuates wildly, which is another manifestation of the excess volatility puzzle.
| Empirical evidence | Standard Finance Account | Behavioural Finance Account |
|---|---|---|
| Price levels probably not correct, particularly when extreme. But prices do fluctuate around "fundamentals" suggesting some predictability. | Preferences may change over time: sometimes investors are more risk averse, sometimes less (theory does not explain when or why). Time-varying disaster risk (but cannot measure it). | Investors may have wrong expectations about firm performance: sometimes too optimistic, sometimes too pessimistic. Need to understand the psychology of belief formation. |
"Many individuals grew suddenly rich. A golden bait hung temptingly out before the people, and one after another, they rushed to the tulip marts, like flies around a honey-pot.... At last, however, the more prudent began to see that this folly could not last forever. Rich people no longer bought the flowers to keep them in their gardens, but to sell them again at cent per cent profit. It was seen that somebody must lose fearfully in the end. As this conviction spread, prices fell, and never rose again." - Charles McKay "Extraordinary Popular Delusions and the Madness of Crowds" (describing the 17th Century 'tulipmania')